Drug Topics - February 2009 - (Page 48)

Continuing Education TE ST QU E S TIO NS Write your answers on the form appearing on page 49 (photocopies of the answer form are acceptable) or on a separate sheet of paper. Mark the most appropriate answer. 1. Patients who are initiated on alvimopan and have received opioids recently may experience all of the following except: a. Nausea and vomiting b. Diarrhea c. Abdominal pain d. Constipation 2. When studied, bendamustine proved to be more ef cacious than the following: a. Doxorubicin b. Cisplatin c. Chlorambucil d. Carboplatin 3. In clinical trials of bendamustine, the adverse reaction seen most often was: a. Hematologic b. Gastrointestinal c. Cardiovascular d. Endocrine 4. Which of the following statements about clevidipine is true? a. A 4% to 5% reduction of systolic blood pressure is observed within 10 to 15 minutes after a clevidipine infusion is initiated. b. Blood concentrations of clevidipine decline in a linear fashion when the infusion is discontinued. c. Clevidipine is highly protein bound (>99%), with metabolism occurring primarily in the blood and tissues via esterases. d. Most patients see a full reversal of drug effect within 30 minutes of discontinuation. 5. Clevidipine is a member of the following therapeutic class: a. Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers c. Beta-blockers b. Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers d. Alpha-blockers 6. Clevidipine infusion should be initiated at a rate of and then titrated to achieve desired blood pressure, with doses initially doubled at intervals of a. 0.5 to 1 mg/hr; 60 seconds b. 1 to 2 mg/hr; 120 seconds c. 0.5 to 1 mg/hr; 90 seconds d. 1 to 2 mg/hr; 90 seconds 7. Patients with a hypersensitivity to the following drug should not receive desvenlafaxine: a. Amitriptyline b. Sertraline c. Venlafaxine d. Gabapentin 8. Following administration of monoamine oxidase inhibitors, desvenlafaxine should not be given for: a. 7 days b. 14 days c. 21 days d. 28 days 9. Di uprednate is administered by the route: a. Ophthalmic b. Oral c. Intravenous d. Topical 10. Before eltrombopag is employed, one of the following therapies must fail: a. Chemotherapy, bone marrow transplantation, splenectomy b. Chemotherapy, radiation, colectomy c. Bone marrow transplantation, cardiac catheterization, thyroidectomy d. Corticosteroids, immunoglobulin treatment, splenectomy 11. Both 4 hours before and 4 hours after taking eltrombopag, patients should be instructed to avoid: a. Ranitidine b. Calcium carbonate c. Pantoprazole d. Potassium chloride 12. All of the following characteristics apply to the HIV patient population for which etravirine is indicated except: a. Treatment-experienced b. Resistant to an NNRTI c. Pediatric d. Adult 13. Due to signi cant alterations in protease inhibitor and/or etravirine concentrations, etravirine should not be co-administered with any of the following boosted PIs except: a. Tipranivir b. Fosamprenavir c. Atazanavir d. Darunavir 14. Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of fesoterodine? a. Dry mouth b. Abdominal pain c. Diarrhea d. Increase in heart rate 15. Which of the following is a contraindication of fesoterodine? a. Pulmonary hypertension b. Uncontrolled narrow-angle glaucoma c. Severe renal insuf ciency d. Myasthenia gravis 16. Fesoterodine is available as: a. 4- and 8-mg extended-release tablets b. 8- and 16-mg extended-release tablets c. 4- and 8-mg immediate-release tablets d. 8- and 16-mg immediate-release tablets 17. Lacosamide is available as: a. Capsules and an oral liquid formulation b. An intravenous injection and tablets c. An intravenous injection and capsules d. An intravenous injection, tablets, and an oral liquid formulation. 18. Lacosamide: a. Crosses the blood-brain barrier and increases the level of GABA in the synaptic cleft via inhibition of its neuronal and glial uptake b. Selectively enhances slow inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels and inhibits repetitive neuronal ring c. Inhibits voltage-dependent sodium and calcium currents, potentiates GABA-mediated events, blocks the AMPA/KA receptor, and enhances potassium currents d. Blocks voltage-dependent sodium channels and reduces calcium currents through T-type channels 19. The appropriate dose of methylnaltrexone for a patient who weighs 30 kg is: a. 0.15 mg/kg b. 0.30 mg/kg c. 8 mg d. 12 mg 20. A potential therapeutic advantage of regadenoson is its selectivity for the following adenosine receptor: a. A1 b. A2A c. A2B d. A3 21. Ru namide is used: a. As monotherapy to treat partial and generalized tonic-clonic seizures b. In the treatment of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy c. As adjunctive therapy in the treatment of absence seizures in children and adolescents d. As adjunctive therapy in the treatment of seizures associated with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome 22. Silodosin is used in the treatment of: a. Hypertension b. Hyperhidrosis c. Benign prostatic hyperplasia d. Pulmonary hypertension 23. The effect of a moderately fat meal resulted in concentrations of silodosin. It is recommended that this medication be taken a. Increased; on an empty stomach b. Decreased; on an empty stomach c. Increased; with a meal d. Decreased; with a meal 24. Regarding the dosage of silodosin, which of the following is NOT true? a. The recommended dose of silodosin is 8 mg taken once daily with a meal b. Patients with severe hepatic impairment should receive a reduced dose of 4 mg once daily with a meal c. Patients with moderate renal impairment should receive a reduced dose of 4 mg once daily with a meal d. Silodosin is contraindicated among patients with severe renal impairment 25. The most common side effect experienced by patients receiving silodosin is: a. Nausea and vomiting b. Diarrhea c. Orthostatic hypotension d. Orgasm with reduced or no semen 26. The recommended dose of tetrabenazine: a. Is initially 25 mg given orally once daily b. Should be increased to 25 mg given twice daily after one week of therapy c. Should not exceed 25 mg given at one time d. May not be given more than 3 times per day 27. The major drug metabolites of tetrabenazine are substrates. a. CYP1A2 b. CYP3A4 c. CYP2D6 d. CYP2C9 28. Before treatment with certolizumab pegol begins, patients should be tested for: a. Diabetes mellitus b. Asthma c. Hyperlipidemia d. Latent tuberculosis 29. Tapentadol is approved for the treatment of: a. Diabetes mellitus b. Asthma c. Hyperlipidemia d. Latent tuberculosis 30. Pleixafor is reported to increase the number of in patients with non-Hodgkins lymphoma and multiple myeloloma: a. Platelets b. Leukocytes c. Blood stem cells d. Reticulocytes W W W.D R U GTO P I C S .C O M 48 DRUG TOPICS Februar y 2009 http://WWW.DRUGTOPICS.COM

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Drug Topics - February 2009 Contents Health-System Edition Group Attempts to Resurrect Pain Care Act HSE Business Management HSE Clinical Letters Up Front Up Front in Depth Community Practice Niche Pharmacies Serve Special Populations Special Report Oral Oncology Drugs New Drugs Update 2008 Approvals OTC New Products Viewpoint

Drug Topics - February 2009

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